Thursday, February 12, 2015

Easter Passover What.

Acts 12:4 King James Version (KJV)

And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. 
 

Acts 12:4 English Standard Version (ESV)

And when he had seized him, he put him in prison, delivering him over to four squads of soldiers to guard him, intending after the Passover to bring him out to the people.

Why?
 
A friend pointed this out to me several years ago. I'd never noticed it before. Strange. I assumed it was a purely Anti-Semitic move, but maybe there is another explanation, some line of reasoning. Why was the word Easter used in one translation and the word Passover used in another? I am hopeful that the correction in later translations indicates a change in attitudes toward the Jewish people. 
 
What do you think?
 

8 comments:

  1. No, its was not a anti-Semetic act. Herodus wanted to be friends with the Sanhedrin. Thats the reason he put the Jews who believe in Jesus as Messiah in prison. But he had to wait with bringing for this man because he know that the Jew on the day in which the paschal lamb was ate, no one might kill. That was against the law of of the Jews. So he had to wait

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    1. Interesting!

      But why does one translation use the word Easter while the other says Passover?

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  2. Sandi: I never noticed this before. It gives me something to think on.

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  3. It may be a translation error or it could be that Harrod being a pagan and not a Jew wanted to wait for Easter...His own passover festival.

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  4. I think this is just a quirk of the translation. I have seen an argument that Easter is actually after the Passover, but I see nothing to suggest that the original Greek was not the same word as otherwise used for Passover - and in general it's best to translate the same word by the same word.

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  5. I have no idea, but I'm wondering if it's simply an error, too. If you find out, please let us know.

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